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Default Two-stroke mix question

Now I know that in practice it doesnt matter a jot but every time I mix up
some two-stroke fuel I agonise (very slightly) over whether its one part
oil added to 50 parts petrol or one part oil *in* 50 parts petrol/oil mix
(hence one part oil added to 49 parts of petrol)

So, does a 1:50 mixture equal 2% oil in petrol or 1.96%?

Tim


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on 29/08/2019, Tim+ supposed :
Now I know that in practice it doesnt matter a jot but every time I mix up
some two-stroke fuel I agonise (very slightly) over whether its one part
oil added to 50 parts petrol or one part oil *in* 50 parts petrol/oil mix
(hence one part oil added to 49 parts of petrol)


50 litres of fuel to 1 litre of oil, to make 51 litres in total.
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Default Two-stroke mix question

On 29/08/2019 10:58, Tim+ wrote:
Now I know that in practice it doesnt matter a jot but every time I mix up
some two-stroke fuel I agonise (very slightly) over whether its one part
oil added to 50 parts petrol or one part oil *in* 50 parts petrol/oil mix
(hence one part oil added to 49 parts of petrol)

So, does a 1:50 mixture equal 2% oil in petrol or 1.96%?

Tim


Well, 1:1 would be equal parts, so 1:50 is 1.96%

Cheers
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Default Two-stroke mix question

Clive Arthur wrote:

On 29/08/2019 10:58, Tim+ wrote:
Now I know that in practice it doesn't matter a jot but every time I mix up
some two-stroke fuel I agonise (very slightly) over whether it's one part
oil added to 50 parts petrol or one part oil *in* 50 parts petrol/oil mix
(hence one part oil added to 49 parts of petrol)

So, does a 1:50 mixture equal 2% oil in petrol or 1.96%?

Tim


Well, 1:1 would be equal parts, so 1:50 is 1.96%

Cheers


OTOH, 1 in 2 would be equal parts so one in 50 is 2%. I have seen 2
stroke proportions expressed either way,


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Default Two-stroke mix question


"Tim+" wrote in message
...
Now I know that in practice it doesnt matter a jot but every time I mix
up
some two-stroke fuel I agonise (very slightly) over whether its one
part
oil added to 50 parts petrol or one part oil *in* 50 parts petrol/oil mix
(hence one part oil added to 49 parts of petrol)

So, does a 1:50 mixture equal 2% oil in petrol or 1.96%?

Tim


Plenty of online calculators for 2T oil mix
50:1 Hmmmm really ?
you should try that question on a 2stroke motorcycle forum
the page explodes with different opinions

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Default Two-stroke mix question

On 29/08/2019 17:06, Mark wrote:
"Tim+" wrote in message
...
Now I know that in practice it doesnât matter a jot but every time I mix
up
some two-stroke fuel I agonise (very slightly) over whether itâs one
part
oil added to 50 parts petrol or one part oil *in* 50 parts petrol/oil mix
(hence one part oil added to 49 parts of petrol)

So, does a 1:50 mixture equal 2% oil in petrol or 1.96%?

Tim


Plenty of online calculators for 2T oil mix
50:1 Hmmmm really ?
you should try that question on a 2stroke motorcycle forum
the page explodes with different opinions

-


Ive usd 50:1 with quality oil on all my garden 2 strokes for years


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Default Two-stroke mix question

Tim+ Wrote in message:
Now I know that in practice it doesn?t matter a jot but every time I mix up
some two-stroke fuel I agonise (very slightly) over whether it?s one part
oil added to 50 parts petrol or one part oil *in* 50 parts petrol/oil mix
(hence one part oil added to 49 parts of petrol)

So, does a 1:50 mixture equal 2% oil in petrol or 1.96%?

Tim



In practice how are you measuring it anyway?
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Default Two-stroke mix question

On Thu, 29 Aug 2019 12:18:00 +0100, Chris Hogg wrote:

On 29 Aug 2019 09:58:53 GMT, Tim+ wrote:

Now I know that in practice it doesnt matter a jot but every time I mix up
some two-stroke fuel I agonise (very slightly) over whether its one part
oil added to 50 parts petrol or one part oil *in* 50 parts petrol/oil mix
(hence one part oil added to 49 parts of petrol)

So, does a 1:50 mixture equal 2% oil in petrol or 1.96%?


As you say, "in practice it doesnt matter a jot", as long as you've
got a bit of oil in there to provide lubrication. Better to put a
little too much oil in than too little.


I thought it was (un intuitively) the opposite?

The reason being, if you put too much oil in you will still be
metering the same volume of 'fuel' (which is now diluted by oil) and
so you end up running with a lean 'fuel' / air mixture?

Cheers, T i m

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Default Two-stroke mix question

Mark wrote:

"Tim+" wrote in message
...
Now I know that in practice it doesnt matter a jot but every time I mix
up
some two-stroke fuel I agonise (very slightly) over whether its one
part
oil added to 50 parts petrol or one part oil *in* 50 parts petrol/oil mix
(hence one part oil added to 49 parts of petrol)

So, does a 1:50 mixture equal 2% oil in petrol or 1.96%?

Tim


Plenty of online calculators for 2T oil mix


Im sure there are. I was just curious as to whether others find the bald
50 to 1 mix a little bit ambiguous.

50:1 Hmmmm really ?


Yes, really. Whats wrong with it?

you should try that question on a 2stroke motorcycle forum
the page explodes with different opinions


More interested in the correct answer (if such a thing exists) than more
opinions.

Tim




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Default Two-stroke mix question

Chris Hogg wrote:
On 29 Aug 2019 18:20:06 GMT, Tim+ wrote:

More interested in the “correct” answer (if such a thing exists) than more
opinions.

Tim


There is no correct answer. 50:1 is only a general guide, a
rule-of-thumb.


Indeed, actual mixtures vary a lot between different engines but it was the
point about whether 50:1 = 1 part oil added to 50 parts petrol or whether
50:1 = 1 part oil added to 49 parts petrol making a 1 *in* 50 mixture.

Thats already been answered (and its the former).

"with petrol/gasoline at a volumetric fuel-to-oil ratio ranging from
16:1 to as low as 100:1."


Old Seagull outboards used to run on 10:1.

Tim

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On 29 Aug 2019 19:30:47 GMT, Tim+ wrote:

snip


Old Seagull outboards used to run on 10:1.


My short shaft 'Forty Feather-weight' with recoil starter and long
range tank used to run on that very well.

I'm not sure the environment appreciated it though. ;-(

The little Yamaha 2hp 2/ runs on 50:1 I think (might be 25:1).

The Mariner 2.5hp just needs oil in the crankcase and bevel gear.

The Yamaha M12 runs on a mix of leads and acid and is much better for
the environment (at point_of_use specifically) *and* my Tinnitus. ;-)

Cheers, T i m




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Default Two-stroke mix question

Tim+ expressed precisely :
I was just curious as to whether others find the bald
50 to 1 mix a little bit ambiguous.


No, I don't find it ambiguous 50 of one and 1 of the other, that is
what it says.
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Harry Bloomfield, Esq. wrote:
Tim+ expressed precisely :
I was just curious as to whether others find the bald
50 to 1 mix a little bit ambiguous.


No, I don't find it ambiguous 50 of one and 1 of the other, that is
what it says.


It could also be interpreted to mean one fiftieth part in the final mix.

Tim

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Default Two-stroke mix question

On 29/08/2019 20:30, Tim+ wrote:
Chris Hogg wrote:
On 29 Aug 2019 18:20:06 GMT, Tim+ wrote:

More interested in the “correct” answer (if such a thing exists) than more
opinions.

Tim


There is no correct answer. 50:1 is only a general guide, a
rule-of-thumb.


Indeed, actual mixtures vary a lot between different engines but it was the
point about whether 50:1 = 1 part oil added to 50 parts petrol or whether
50:1 = 1 part oil added to 49 parts petrol making a 1 *in* 50 mixture.

Thats already been answered (and its the former).

"with petrol/gasoline at a volumetric fuel-to-oil ratio ranging from
16:1 to as low as 100:1."


Old Seagull outboards used to run on 10:1.



My BSA C12 used petrol to oil in the ratio 8:1.

Yes, it was four-stroke engine: it just leaked a pint of oil through the
seals and rings and the bore for every gallon of petrol I put in the tank.

Nick


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On 29/08/2019 22:39, Tim+ wrote:
Harry Bloomfield, Esq. wrote:
Tim+ expressed precisely :
I was just curious as to whether others find the bald
50 to 1 mix a little bit ambiguous.


No, I don't find it ambiguous 50 of one and 1 of the other, that is
what it says.


It could also be interpreted to mean one fiftieth part in the final mix.

Tim

Well no, not really.

First of all if uyou were taught anything at school 50:1 is unambiguous
50/51ths of one and 1/51th of the other.

And its expressed that way because that is how we measure the mix. three
shovels of sand and one shovel of cement etc.

Its only ambiguous to art students.

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Tim+ submitted this idea :
It could also be interpreted to mean one fiftieth part in the final mix.


Hardly, that is not how it is written. Instead of writing 50:1 it could
be written as 50 parts to 1 part, or 50 measures to 1 measure.

If they meant that 50 was the total measure, they would write it as
49:1. The total volume is not mentioned and doesn't really matter,
unless space is limited in the mixing tank.
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In article ,
The Natural Philosopher wrote:
On 29/08/2019 22:39, Tim+ wrote:
Harry Bloomfield, Esq. wrote:
Tim+ expressed precisely :
I was just curious as to whether others find the bald
50 to 1 mix a little bit ambiguous.

No, I don't find it ambiguous 50 of one and 1 of the other, that is
what it says.


It could also be interpreted to mean one fiftieth part in the final mix.

Tim

Well no, not really.


First of all if uyou were taught anything at school 50:1 is unambiguous
50/51ths of one and 1/51th of the other.


And its expressed that way because that is how we measure the mix. three
shovels of sand and one shovel of cement etc.


and that has a high degree of accuracy ;-)
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Default Two-stroke mix question

On 29/08/2019 22:39, Tim+ wrote:
Harry Bloomfield, Esq. wrote:
Tim+ expressed precisely :
I was just curious as to whether others find the bald
50 to 1 mix a little bit ambiguous.


No, I don't find it ambiguous 50 of one and 1 of the other, that is
what it says.


It could also be interpreted to mean one fiftieth part in the final mix.


That would be "one in fifty" rather than "one /to/ fifty".

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Harry Bloomfield, Esq. wrote:
Tim+ submitted this idea :
It could also be interpreted to mean one fiftieth part in the final mix.


Hardly, that is not how it is written. Instead of writing 50:1 it could
be written as 50 parts to 1 part, or 50 measures to 1 measure.

If they meant that 50 was the total measure, they would write it as
49:1. The total volume is not mentioned and doesn't really matter,
unless space is limited in the mixing tank.


And yet, even Husqvarna describe a 50:1 mix as 2%.

https://www.husqvarna.com/au/forest/...2-stroke-fuel/

Tim

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Tim+ wrote:

Harry Bloomfield, Esq. wrote:
Tim+ submitted this idea :
It could also be interpreted to mean one fiftieth part in the final mix.


Hardly, that is not how it is written. Instead of writing 50:1 it could
be written as 50 parts to 1 part, or 50 measures to 1 measure.

If they meant that 50 was the total measure, they would write it as
49:1. The total volume is not mentioned and doesn't really matter,
unless space is limited in the mixing tank.


And yet, even Husqvarna describe a 50:1 mix as 2%.

https://www.husqvarna.com/au/forest/...o-mix-2-stroke
-fuel/

Tim


But it is 2% to the degree of precision required. Indeed, it would be
2.0% to two significant figures.


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On 30/08/2019 11:51, Tim+ wrote:
Harry Bloomfield, Esq. wrote:
Tim+ submitted this idea :
It could also be interpreted to mean one fiftieth part in the final mix.


Hardly, that is not how it is written. Instead of writing 50:1 it could
be written as 50 parts to 1 part, or 50 measures to 1 measure.

If they meant that 50 was the total measure, they would write it as
49:1. The total volume is not mentioned and doesn't really matter,
unless space is limited in the mixing tank.


And yet, even Husqvarna describe a 50:1 mix as 2%.


Did you expect them to say 1.960784314% instead?


https://www.husqvarna.com/au/forest/...2-stroke-fuel/

Tim



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