Hello, any advice is appreciated.

I am about to buy a house with a roughly-constructed basement bathroom.

It was listed on the MLS as a 2-bed, 2-bath (one upstairs, one down. I
had the house inspected because in MN it's required before every
purchase.

The owners had us over last night to see if we'd want anything they
were hoping to leave behind (lawnmower, etc).

I asked him if the basement shower was vented and P-trapped (a strict
code requirement). He said it wasn't. He may have been wrong, but I
don't think so - he seemed pretty sharp about his house. I haven't had
the chance to look at the shower drain to find out. I am assuming if
the shower wasn't P-trapped, the toilet wasn't either. Big code no-no.

This is a "non-conforming" bathroom, right? Just like a non-conforming
bedroom?

My question: was it legal for him to list this house as a 2-bed,
2-bath? Because one of their negotiation points was: "this house is
smack dab on market vale for a 2-bed/2-bath in Fridley, MN. We think we

can get it, which is why we're not going to take much off our asking
price."

If it was legal, then it must be OK for me to sell it as 2-bath.
Correct?

My main point -- I plan on finishing the rest of the basement. If the
city makes me bring the bathroom up to code, why should I pay for it?
It's been sold as a perfectly good bathroom to me. Why can't I sell it,

as is, to the next person? If I'm forced to sell it as non-conforming,
this guy's listing screwed me because I can't ask as much $$ as he did.


Thanks for our help. This is my first house and I'm concerned.

PS - the inspector most likely is insulated from action by the
paperwork I signed. I'll take a look at it and check. Most are.