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About to buy a house - didn't know bathroom was non-conforming
Hello, any advice is appreciated.
I am about to buy a house with a roughly-constructed basement bathroom. It was listed on the MLS as a 2-bed, 2-bath (one upstairs, one down. I had the house inspected because in MN it's required before every purchase. The owners had us over last night to see if we'd want anything they were hoping to leave behind (lawnmower, etc). I asked him if the basement shower was vented and P-trapped (a strict code requirement). He said it wasn't. He may have been wrong, but I don't think so - he seemed pretty sharp about his house. I haven't had the chance to look at the shower drain to find out. I am assuming if the shower wasn't P-trapped, the toilet wasn't either. Big code no-no. This is a "non-conforming" bathroom, right? Just like a non-conforming bedroom? My question: was it legal for him to list this house as a 2-bed, 2-bath? Because one of their negotiation points was: "this house is smack dab on market vale for a 2-bed/2-bath in Fridley, MN. We think we can get it, which is why we're not going to take much off our asking price." If it was legal, then it must be OK for me to sell it as 2-bath. Correct? My main point -- I plan on finishing the rest of the basement. If the city makes me bring the bathroom up to code, why should I pay for it? It's been sold as a perfectly good bathroom to me. Why can't I sell it, as is, to the next person? If I'm forced to sell it as non-conforming, this guy's listing screwed me because I can't ask as much $$ as he did. Thanks for our help. This is my first house and I'm concerned. PS - the inspector most likely is insulated from action by the paperwork I signed. I'll take a look at it and check. Most are. |
Yes, a seller can include non-conforming bedrooms and
bathrooms in the count when advertising a house for sale. He's making a statement about what the house has, not about what it has that's up to code. However, in Minnesota, sellers are required to disclose information that could affect "an ordinary buyer's use and enjoyment of the property" or "any intended use of the property of which the seller is aware." See http://www.revisor.leg.state.mn.us/stats/513/55.html and http://www.daar.com/SellerDisclosure.htm. It is easy to argue convincingly that non-conformance about which the seller was obviously aware falls into that category. Note, however, that since the non-conformance was disclosed before the closing, you're in a grey area. If you didn't find out until after the closing, you'd have an open-and-shut case of violation of the disclosure statute, and you could sue the seller for damages, probably calculated based on the cost of bringing the bathroom up to code. At this point, you could probably demand that the seller lower the purchase price of the house on a similar basis, and if he refuses you can probably demand to be let out of the deal and for the seller to pay all your costs associated with the deal. However, if the seller refuses to lower the purchase price and you decide to go ahead with the purchase anyway, you probably can't collect any damages. The inspector's off the hook because he's also required to spot what's visible to the naked eye, and the problems with the bathroom aren't. If you sell the house, you are obligated to disclose even if the seller didn't, so if you were to leave the bathroom as-is and then sell without disclosing that it's non-conformant, you'd be violating the disclosure statute just as your seller did. |
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The house we now own had four rooms actually in use as bedrooms when we
looked at it before buying it, but it was advertised as having only three, the fourth being a windowless basement room. Even the third bedroom (also in the basement) did not comply with the current Code, because the window was too small and too high, but it was legitimate to claim it as a bedroom because it complied with the Code when it was constructed/converted. (We had the window enlarged to conform to the current Code.) In the case of the house to which the OP refers, is it possible that the basement bathroom complied with the Code when it was constructed -- and therefore, presumably, "grandfathered"? Perce On 08/03/05 02:50 pm Jonathan Kamens tossed the following ingredients into the ever-growing pot of cybersoup: Yes, a seller can include non-conforming bedrooms and bathrooms in the count when advertising a house for sale. He's making a statement about what the house has, not about what it has that's up to code. However, in Minnesota, sellers are required to disclose information that could affect "an ordinary buyer's use and enjoyment of the property" or "any intended use of the property of which the seller is aware." See http://www.revisor.leg.state.mn.us/stats/513/55.html and http://www.daar.com/SellerDisclosure.htm. It is easy to argue convincingly that non-conformance about which the seller was obviously aware falls into that category. Note, however, that since the non-conformance was disclosed before the closing, you're in a grey area. If you didn't find out until after the closing, you'd have an open-and-shut case of violation of the disclosure statute, and you could sue the seller for damages, probably calculated based on the cost of bringing the bathroom up to code. At this point, you could probably demand that the seller lower the purchase price of the house on a similar basis, and if he refuses you can probably demand to be let out of the deal and for the seller to pay all your costs associated with the deal. However, if the seller refuses to lower the purchase price and you decide to go ahead with the purchase anyway, you probably can't collect any damages. The inspector's off the hook because he's also required to spot what's visible to the naked eye, and the problems with the bathroom aren't. If you sell the house, you are obligated to disclose even if the seller didn't, so if you were to leave the bathroom as-is and then sell without disclosing that it's non-conformant, you'd be violating the disclosure statute just as your seller did. |
bryanska wrote:
Hello, any advice is appreciated. I am about to buy a house with a roughly-constructed basement bathroom. It was listed on the MLS as a 2-bed, 2-bath (one upstairs, one down. I had the house inspected because in MN it's required before every purchase. The owners had us over last night to see if we'd want anything they were hoping to leave behind (lawnmower, etc). I asked him if the basement shower was vented and P-trapped (a strict code requirement). He said it wasn't. He may have been wrong, but I don't think so - he seemed pretty sharp about his house. I haven't had the chance to look at the shower drain to find out. I am assuming if the shower wasn't P-trapped, the toilet wasn't either. Big code no-no. A P-trap for the toilet? |
On Wed, 3 Aug 2005 18:50:22 +0000 (UTC), someone wrote:
if he refuses you can probably demand to be let out of the deal and for the seller to pay all your costs associated with the deal..... Hey Jon, watch out, you're almost giving legal advice! ;-) He can DEMAND anything he wants - but COLLECTING on that is another matter entirely. So he finds out something that makes him want to back out - and it is arguable whether this is the Seller's "fault" or not - so he backs out - IMHO (of course) fat chance of getting "all" his costs.... Reply to NG only - this e.mail address goes to a kill file. |
Thanks all, for your advice.
The more I'm asking around about this, the more it's a "grandfather" issue. The bath can be left as is, and I can sell it as is. Ditto if it was a non-conforming bedroom that WAS conforming at time of construction. But if I choose to replace any of the bathroom fixtures I may be forced to upgrade the plumbing and install P-traps. This means breaking up concrete etc. That is, of course, if I decide to pull permits. But permit or not, a sewer-stinky remodeled bathroom isn't what I'm looking for. *sigh* I didn't know squat about bathroom code until I got all excited after the offer was approved and I started researching my fun little bathroom project. |
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