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  #1   Report Post  
slindars
 
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Default I got Shilled on Ebay

So I think I got caught a Ebay seller in the act of Shilling! There
was a drill press for sale in the town I live in that I went on-site
to inspect. While there the seller mentioned he put on bid in for
$25. I quietly took note of this. Now today, with seconds to go the
same user account that made the inital bid of 25 places a much higher
bid. I ended up winning the item due to a high proxy bid, but it
looks like he did not want to let that drill press go for the $37.00
my bid would have won it for. Instead he drove the price up to $73.
I've sent him an email asking for his insight onto this and will
report it to ebay. I'd like to see if he reply's and comes clean on
his own. Any thoughts?
  #2   Report Post  
Dave Hinz
 
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Default

On 11 Nov 2004 10:49:25 -0800, slindars wrote:
So I think I got caught a Ebay seller in the act of Shilling!

(snip)
I'd like to see if he reply's and comes clean on
his own. Any thoughts?


He probably won't, and in any case, you owe it to the rest of eBay's
community to report him to SafeHarbor. At a very minimum, if you are
sure of what you say, comment on same in the feedback for this auction.

SafeHarbor will, if presented what you've said here, most likely look
at this and his other auctions to see if there is a pattern, and will
proceed accordingly.

Dave Hinz

  #13   Report Post  
SuperSpaz
 
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Default

Sounds to me like typical sniping (not against the rules), not the seller
shilling(definite no-no).

The first bidder bids $25, you come along a and place a higher bid, the
first bidder decides to use a sniping site to place a bid seconds before the
auction ends. You win because your bid via Ebay was simply higher than the
bid he placed via the sniping site.

You can report it, but unless there's a connection between the two accounts,
you are likely SOL. From what you have said, I can see why you are peeved,
you had to pay $73 vs. the $37 it was at until the last second bid was
placed. I also can't see how you can conclude that the seller shilled you
unless you have some other information.





"slindars" wrote in message
om...
So I think I got caught a Ebay seller in the act of Shilling! There
was a drill press for sale in the town I live in that I went on-site
to inspect. While there the seller mentioned he put on bid in for
$25. I quietly took note of this. Now today, with seconds to go the
same user account that made the inital bid of 25 places a much higher
bid. I ended up winning the item due to a high proxy bid, but it
looks like he did not want to let that drill press go for the $37.00
my bid would have won it for. Instead he drove the price up to $73.
I've sent him an email asking for his insight onto this and will
report it to ebay. I'd like to see if he reply's and comes clean on
his own. Any thoughts?



  #14   Report Post  
ATP
 
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Default


"slindars" wrote in message
om...
So I think I got caught a Ebay seller in the act of Shilling! There
was a drill press for sale in the town I live in that I went on-site
to inspect. While there the seller mentioned he put on bid in for
$25.


The seller told you he bid on his own auction? That doesn't make sense.


  #16   Report Post  
John Keeney
 
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Default


"slindars" wrote in message
om...
So I think I got caught a Ebay seller in the act of Shilling! There
was a drill press for sale in the town I live in that I went on-site
to inspect. While there the seller mentioned he put on bid in for
$25. I quietly took note of this. Now today, with seconds to go the
same user account that made the inital bid of 25 places a much higher
bid. I ended up winning the item due to a high proxy bid, but it
looks like he did not want to let that drill press go for the $37.00
my bid would have won it for. Instead he drove the price up to $73.
I've sent him an email asking for his insight onto this and will
report it to ebay. I'd like to see if he reply's and comes clean on
his own. Any thoughts?


Was the person showing you the drill press handling
the sell/display for someone else per chance? Say, a
business he worked for?
I don't doult it happens, but most people are a little
brighter than admit it to strangers.


  #17   Report Post  
No Spam
 
Posts: n/a
Default

slindars wrote:
So I think I got caught a Ebay seller in the act of Shilling! There
was a drill press for sale in the town I live in that I went on-site
to inspect. While there the seller mentioned he put on bid in for
$25. I quietly took note of this. Now today, with seconds to go the
same user account that made the inital bid of 25 places a much higher
bid. I ended up winning the item due to a high proxy bid, but it
looks like he did not want to let that drill press go for the $37.00
my bid would have won it for. Instead he drove the price up to $73.
I've sent him an email asking for his insight onto this and will
report it to ebay. I'd like to see if he reply's and comes clean on
his own. Any thoughts?


http://cgi.ebay.com/ws/eBayISAPI.dll...0769 536&rd=1

I didn't see any pattern between the seller and alledged shiller, but
who knows.

FWIW, $73 still seems like a decent price. I understand that shilling
is illegal, immoral, wrong, etc...but keep things in perspective.


  #20   Report Post  
Todd Fatheree
 
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"Robert Bonomi" wrote in message
news:7dabb$4194e293
Tim Douglass wrote:
A seller bidding on their own auction is, in the U.S. at least, a
crime and you can do time for it.


Got a _cite_ for that statute?


How's this?
http://www.usdoj.gov/criminal/cyberc...man_indict.htm

They were indicted on and plead guilty to both wire and mail fraud for the
shill bidding. Each fraud count carries up to 5 years in the slammer.

I'm not a lawyer, but I'm guessing they were prosecuted under Title 18, Part
1, Chapter 47, Section 1030.4 of the US Criminal Code, which states
"Whoever ... knowingly and with intent to defraud, accesses a protected
computer without authorization, or exceeds authorized access, and by means
of such conduct furthers the intended fraud and obtains anything of value,
unless the object of the fraud and the thing obtained consists only of the
use of the computer and the value of such use is not more than $5,000 in any
1-year period ... shall be punished as provided in subsection (c) of this
section."

http://www.usdoj.gov/criminal/cybercrime/1030NEW.htm

todd




  #21   Report Post  
igor
 
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Default

On Fri, 12 Nov 2004 10:44:21 -0600, "Todd Fatheree"
wrote:

"Robert Bonomi" wrote in message
news:7dabb$4194e293
Tim Douglass wrote:
A seller bidding on their own auction is, in the U.S. at least, a
crime and you can do time for it.


Got a _cite_ for that statute?


How's this?
http://www.usdoj.gov/criminal/cyberc...man_indict.htm

Todd -- BTW, my post above is not meant to contradict what you provided --
general wire fraud. My mention of state law refers to specific anti-shill
provisions. -- Igor
  #22   Report Post  
Todd Fatheree
 
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Default

"igor" wrote in message
...
On Fri, 12 Nov 2004 10:44:21 -0600, "Todd Fatheree"
wrote:

"Robert Bonomi" wrote in message
news:7dabb$4194e293
Tim Douglass wrote:
A seller bidding on their own auction is, in the U.S. at least, a
crime and you can do time for it.

Got a _cite_ for that statute?


How's this?
http://www.usdoj.gov/criminal/cyberc...man_indict.htm

Todd -- BTW, my post above is not meant to contradict what you provided --
general wire fraud. My mention of state law refers to specific anti-shill
provisions. -- Igor


Not at all. I suspect there is more than one way to skin this cat.

todd


  #23   Report Post  
Tim Douglass
 
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On Fri, 12 Nov 2004 16:19:31 +0000,
(Robert Bonomi) wrote:

In article ,
Tim Douglass wrote:
On 11 Nov 2004 18:55:19 GMT,
DY (Tom) wrote:

Scott wrote:
So I think I got caught a Ebay seller in the act of Shilling! There
was a drill press for sale in the town I live in that I went on-site
to inspect. While there the seller mentioned he put on bid in for
$25. I quietly took note of this. Now today, with seconds to go the
same user account that made the inital bid of 25 places a much higher
bid. I ended up winning the item due to a high proxy bid, but it
looks like he did not want to let that drill press go for the $37.00
my bid would have won it for. Instead he drove the price up to $73.
I've sent him an email asking for his insight onto this and will
report it to ebay. I'd like to see if he reply's and comes clean on
his own. Any thoughts?

The seller put in a bid?? Caveat emptor. What size drill press? Tom
Work at your leisure!


A seller bidding on their own auction is, in the U.S. at least, a
crime and you can do time for it.


Got a _cite_ for that statute?


Nope, but several years ago I sat on a Federal grand jury and we
brought indictments in two bid-rigging cases. One was collusion to not
bid to keep the price low, one was shill bidding at an open auction
(think estate auction). In both cases we brought bills to indict, but
I don't know the ultimate resolution of the cases.

I can't speak for all states, but under federal statues there is (or
at least was then) a law that specifically banned shill bidding. Think
about it - if either the seller or the auctioneer (who is paid based
on the selling bid) can place bids they can run the price up fast and
artificially inflate the selling price. It is fraud because *they are
not really bidding to buy* so they cannot lose, they simply keep
running the price up until they get what they want. If they happen to
win the auction no money changes hands, the item simply has to be
re-sold.

Tim Douglass

http://www.DouglassClan.com
  #25   Report Post  
David Hall
 
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Default

slindars wrote:
So I think I got caught a Ebay seller in the act of Shilling! There
was a drill press for sale in the town I live in that I went on-site
to inspect. While there the seller mentioned he put on bid in for
$25. I quietly took note of this. Now today, with seconds to go the
same user account that made the inital bid of 25 places a much higher
bid. I ended up winning the item due to a high proxy bid, but it
looks like he did not want to let that drill press go for the $37.00
my bid would have won it for. Instead he drove the price up to $73.
I've sent him an email asking for his insight onto this and will
report it to ebay. I'd like to see if he reply's and comes clean on
his own. Any thoughts?



http://cgi.ebay.com/ws/eBayISAPI.dll...9&item=3850769

536&rd=1

I didn't see any pattern between the seller and alledged shiller, but
who knows.


OK, I'm confused. There were no $25 bids on that auction. The starting price,
which the seller sets, was $25. I see absolutely no reason to assume that the
other bidder has anything to do with the seller. In fact, they each have been
ebay members for 5 years or more and have several hundred feedback comments.
Normally a shill has a fairly short lived fake account, not one with massive
activity in both buys and sales over 5 years.

Dave Hall


  #26   Report Post  
Robert Bonomi
 
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Default

In article ,
Todd Fatheree wrote:
"Robert Bonomi" wrote in message
news:7dabb$4194e293
Tim Douglass wrote:
A seller bidding on their own auction is, in the U.S. at least, a
crime and you can do time for it.


Got a _cite_ for that statute?


How's this?
http://www.usdoj.gov/criminal/cyberc...man_indict.htm


Not very good, actually.

more below.

They were indicted on and plead guilty to both wire and mail fraud for the
shill bidding. Each fraud count carries up to 5 years in the slammer.

I'm not a lawyer, but I'm guessing they were prosecuted under Title 18, Part
1, Chapter 47, Section 1030.4 of the US Criminal Code, which states
"Whoever ... knowingly and with intent to defraud, accesses a protected
computer without authorization, or exceeds authorized access, and by means
of such conduct furthers the intended fraud and obtains anything of value,
unless the object of the fraud and the thing obtained consists only of the
use of the computer and the value of such use is not more than $5,000 in any
1-year period ... shall be punished as provided in subsection (c) of this
section."


definitely *not* 18 USC 1030 -- that crime is "_unauthorized_ access to a
federal interest computer system".

More likely 18 USC 1341 (mail fraud), and 1343 (wire fraud), since that's
what it *says* they were charged with. grin


These guys were engaged in fraud in the first place, and part of the
implementation of that fraud was the bidding under _false_ identities,
*concealing* the fact that they were bidding on their items.

I do not accept that _any_ bidding by the owner of an item is automatically
illegal.

Almost any 'partition' legal action -- when the *joint*owners* of an item
(typically real-estate, but can be _anything_) cannot agree on a course of
action, nor on a buy-out price -- will result in a court-sanctioned auction
of the item involved. The owners *are* free to _openly_ bid against each
other and any other 'interested party'.

Similarly in a 'foreclosure' auction, the 'secured party' (the seller),
invariably "reserves the right to bid on it's own behalf" at the auction.

  #27   Report Post  
Robert Bonomi
 
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Default

In article ,
Tim Douglass wrote:
On Fri, 12 Nov 2004 16:19:31 +0000,
(Robert Bonomi) wrote:

In article ,
Tim Douglass wrote:
On 11 Nov 2004 18:55:19 GMT,
DY (Tom) wrote:

Scott wrote:
So I think I got caught a Ebay seller in the act of Shilling! There
was a drill press for sale in the town I live in that I went on-site
to inspect. While there the seller mentioned he put on bid in for
$25. I quietly took note of this. Now today, with seconds to go the
same user account that made the inital bid of 25 places a much higher
bid. I ended up winning the item due to a high proxy bid, but it
looks like he did not want to let that drill press go for the $37.00
my bid would have won it for. Instead he drove the price up to $73.
I've sent him an email asking for his insight onto this and will
report it to ebay. I'd like to see if he reply's and comes clean on
his own. Any thoughts?

The seller put in a bid?? Caveat emptor. What size drill press? Tom
Work at your leisure!

A seller bidding on their own auction is, in the U.S. at least, a
crime and you can do time for it.


Got a _cite_ for that statute?


Nope, but several years ago I sat on a Federal grand jury and we
brought indictments in two bid-rigging cases. One was collusion to not
bid to keep the price low, one was shill bidding at an open auction
(think estate auction). In both cases we brought bills to indict, but
I don't know the ultimate resolution of the cases.

I can't speak for all states, but under federal statues there is (or
at least was then) a law that specifically banned shill bidding.


I _can't_ find it.

The United States Criminal Code is 'Title 18'.

The word 'auction' does not appear *anywhere* in that title.
The word 'shill' does not appear *anywhere* in that title.
The word 'bid', or 'bidding' appears three times,
once in relation to post office contracts
once in relation to 'public lands'
once in relation to contractor offers on public works projects.

Feel free to rummage at http://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/18/ to see if
you can find what I missed. Note: *repealed* sections of the Code are
_also_ present, but you have to check them individually.

I _will_ believe that *some* bidding by an item owner may qualify as a form
of fraud.

I do *NOT* believe that _any_ bid by an item owner is automatically a
crime. (more on this below.)


Think
about it - if either the seller or the auctioneer (who is paid based
on the selling bid) can place bids they can run the price up fast and
artificially inflate the selling price.


Auctioneers _always_ do that, by manipulating the 'next bid' increment
that they ask for. If they see lots of bid offers when they're asking
for a particular price, they will increase the step they ask for, for
the next bid. I've seen bidding go $100, $200, $500, $1000, $3000.

I've also seen the bidding go: $5, $6, $7, (from the floor: $30), dead silence.
"$31?" "$31?" Sold!

Actually, I _did_ it -- as the bidder -- in that last case. 'market' value
was around $90, and the rest of the room wasn't knowledgeable in that area.
However, they *were* _very_ prone to fall into 'auction fever' and run the
price of _anything_ up way over anything rational. So, I pre-empted, before
the 'rush' got started. *grin*

It is fraud because *they are
not really bidding to buy* so they cannot lose, they simply keep
running the price up until they get what they want. If they happen to
win the auction no money changes hands, the item simply has to be
re-sold.


*NOT* true, if the _seller_ is the one who bids. If the seller ends up as the
high-bidder, The seller owes the auctioneer his 'commission' on the auction.
No commission is due if the item does not sell. With the commission ranging
from 10% to 20+% of the 'selling' price, this is a _serious_ dis-incentive for
the owner to bid, 'just to run the price up'.


I am _entirely_ willing to believe that *under*some*circumstances*, the owner
bidding on his own item may constitute a form of fraud.

I *DO*NOT* accept that _any_ bidding by the owner automatically constitutes
an illegal action.

There are too many 'foreclosure' auctions, where the property owner (the lender)
"reserves the right to bid on the property on it's own behalf",

There are too many auctions resulting from 'partition' lawsuits, where the
(joint) owners are, *individually*, bidding on their property -- against
each other and/or any other prospective buyers.


  #28   Report Post  
Robert Bonomi
 
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In article ,
igor wrote:
On Fri, 12 Nov 2004 16:19:31 +0000, (Robert
Bonomi) wrote:

A seller bidding on their own auction is, in the U.S. at least, a
crime and you can do time for it.


Got a _cite_ for that statute?

Actually, it is a matter of state law/regulation. (Some states regulate
auctions in some detail by code, others by general law and then by
regulation, I vaguely recall.) I can't say it is this in every state, but
in most IME. Don't have time now to look one up, but you can try
findlaw.com or many state websites -- e.g.,
www.ca.gov -- for actual code
language. -- Igor


I've looked in a number of states. Can't find anything that resembles
a blanket prohibition on the seller bidding.

Foreclosure auctions usually include a notice that the seller (the lender)
"reserves the right to bid, in it's own name"

'Partition' auctions -- where the joint owners can't agree on a buy-out,
usually have the owners, individually, bidding against each other, and/or
any other prospective purchasers.

Either of those situations would indicate that there is *not* any such
absolute prohibition.

  #29   Report Post  
Robert Bonomi
 
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In article ,
alexw wrote:

"Robert Bonomi" wrote in message
servers.com...
In article ,
Tim Douglass wrote:
On 11 Nov 2004 18:55:19 GMT, DY (Tom) wrote:

Scott wrote:
So I think I got caught a Ebay seller in the act of Shilling! There



A seller bidding on their own auction is, in the U.S. at least, a
crime and you can do time for it.


Got a _cite_ for that statute?


How's this?
http://www.ftc.gov/bcp/conline/pubs/...ions.htm#legal


Best I've seen anybody offer so far. But it only proscribes 'shill'
bidding by or on behalf of a seller. And I havn't been able to find
the supporting FTC regs and/or statute, to see _exact_ language.

There are numerous situations where the seller can *legitimately* be
bidding on the item up for auction.

e.g. a foreclosure auction. the lender almost invariably "reserves the
right to bid in it's own name" for the secured item.

e.g. a 'partition' lawsuit auction. Where the joint owners cannot agree
on a division of the item, it is put up for auction -- and often the
owners, *individually*, are bidding against each other, as well as any
other possible buyers.

I've no reason to doubt that _some_ types of seller bidding are proscribed.
I find it hard to believe, particularly given the above examples, that
*all* seller bidding is illegal.


  #31   Report Post  
igor
 
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On Sat, 13 Nov 2004 08:40:12 +0000, (Robert
Bonomi) wrote:

I've looked in a number of states. Can't find anything that resembles
a blanket prohibition on the seller bidding.

Foreclosure auctions usually include a notice that the seller (the lender)
"reserves the right to bid, in it's own name"

'Partition' auctions -- where the joint owners can't agree on a buy-out,
usually have the owners, individually, bidding against each other, and/or
any other prospective purchasers.

Either of those situations would indicate that there is *not* any such
absolute prohibition.


For someone who seems determined to have an argument, you might want to do
a little better job at research.

1. The fact that in foreclosure auctions there is the reference you found
to a self-bidding exception indicates (or suggests, if you wish) that
self-bidding is not otherwise allowed unless excepted. So, you got that
"absolutely" wrong. Statutory construction 101.

The deal here is that an auction such as ebay's is a holding out for sale
by open bid. If the owner self-bids or employs someone else to bid as a
shill, then the item is not truly being held out for sale by open bid.

Not enough for you? Then continue reading ...

2. I gave you a link to the California site. And, I believe that ebay is
governed by CA law because it is located there, though I may be wrong about
that - and you can check their cite. Anyway, here is what I found at
ca.gov:

"CALIFORNIA CODE, CIVIL CODE, SECTION 1812.601

"(b) 'Auction' means a sale transaction conducted by means of oral
or written exchanges between an auctioneer and the members of his or
her audience, which exchanges consist of a series of invitations for
offers for the purchase of goods made by the auctioneer and offers to
purchase made by members of the audience and culminate in the
acceptance by the auctioneer of the highest or most favorable offer
made by a member of the participating audience."

"audience" does not include owners or shills, even if they are "in the
audience" - difference between vulgar English (look up "vulgar") and
legalese. Rather, they are "owners" and "agents".

Still not enough? Then say, "Please sir, may I have another?" and get
ready to be spanked again.

3. Here ya go:

"CALIFORNIA CODE, CIVIL CODE, SECTION 1812.608

"In addition to other requirements and prohibitions of
this title, it is a violation of this title for any person to do any
of the following:
...
"(h) Cause or allow any person to bid at a sale for the sole
purpose of increasing the bid on any item or items being sold by the
auctioneer, except as authorized by Section 2328 of the Commercial
Code or by this title. A violation of this subdivision includes, but
is not limited to, either of the following:
"(1) Stating any increased bid greater than that offered by the
last highest bidder when, in fact, no person has made such a bid.
"(2) Allowing the owner, consignor, or agent thereof, of any item
or items to bid on the item or items, without disclosing to the
audience that the owner, consignor, or agent thereof has reserved the
right to so bid.
"A violation of this subdivision is an infraction subject to a fine
of one hundred dollars ($100)."

QED

3. If you need more, let me know and I'll send you a fee schedule. -- Igor

  #32   Report Post  
Tim Douglass
 
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On Sat, 13 Nov 2004 07:59:31 +0000,
(Robert Bonomi) wrote:

Actually, I _did_ it -- as the bidder -- in that last case. 'market' value
was around $90, and the rest of the room wasn't knowledgeable in that area.
However, they *were* _very_ prone to fall into 'auction fever' and run the
price of _anything_ up way over anything rational. So, I pre-empted, before
the 'rush' got started. *grin*


I actually do that a lot on e-bay. It works there as well as anywhere.
When people see 5 essentially identical auctions and one has a current
bid that is much higher than the others they will avoid that one. Even
the snipers seem to skip them.

I am _entirely_ willing to believe that *under*some*circumstances*, the owner
bidding on his own item may constitute a form of fraud.

I *DO*NOT* accept that _any_ bidding by the owner automatically constitutes
an illegal action.


As I pointed out elsewhere, it is only illegal if you use a shill.
Sorry I didn't make that clear the first time around. Collusion (bid
rigging) and shill bidding are the two types of auction fraud that are
criminal in nature as far as I know.

Bid rigging is effectively impossible on e-bay, but is actually fairly
common in courthouse steps property auctions. Two or three investors
will get together and decide who gets what property and each one will
only bid on the one they are supposed to get. In small towns where
there may only be a couple of qualified bidders it seems to be most
prevalent, since it will obviously only work if *all* the potential
bidders are in on the fix.

Shill bidding is probably more common on e-bay than most people think,
since it is very easy to create multiple accounts. The danger, as you
pointed out, is that you get stuck winning the auction. What most will
do under those circumstances is cancel the auction and run it again,
which allows them to avoid paying the e-bay fees. They may also do the
"second chance" thing (or whatever it is called) where they can offer
it to the second highest bidder, claiming the high bidder refused to
pay.

Tim Douglass

http://www.DouglassClan.com
  #33   Report Post  
igor
 
Posts: n/a
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On Sat, 13 Nov 2004 07:59:31 +0000, (Robert
Bonomi) wrote:



I am _entirely_ willing to believe that *under*some*circumstances*, the owner
bidding on his own item may constitute a form of fraud.

I *DO*NOT* accept that _any_ bidding by the owner automatically constitutes
an illegal action.

There are too many 'foreclosure' auctions, where the property owner (the lender)
"reserves the right to bid on the property on it's own behalf",

There are too many auctions resulting from 'partition' lawsuits, where the
(joint) owners are, *individually*, bidding on their property -- against
each other and/or any other prospective buyers.


You are making the point you claim to be refuting: Self-bidding is allowed
only within certain specific exceptions. Above, you made a reference to
"absolute prohibition". There is not even an "absolute prohibition"
against killing someone with a gun -- e.g., there is the self-defense
exception. Also, in some states you can shoot to kill anyone who breaks
into your house while you are at home. Then there is "defense of others".
The exceptions themselves make rather clear that there is a "general
prohibition" -- even if you have not found it. Maybe someone here said
that _any_ owner-bidding is illegal, but I think that is your straw man.
The fact is that there are laws against owner-bidding, unless excepted
(and, generally, disclosed to the other bidders).

And, neither of the exceptions you found have anything to do with the
auction the OP mentioned. -- Igor.
  #35   Report Post  
Ba r r y
 
Posts: n/a
Default

On Sat, 13 Nov 2004 11:37:26 -0800, Tim Douglass
wrote:


Sellers can always bid - as long as they do it in their own name and
publicly.


I've seen this done in non-reserve live auctions. Other bidders have
the option of bidding higher, or letting the seller leave with the
item.

Barry


  #36   Report Post  
Robert Bonomi
 
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In article ,
igor wrote:
On Sat, 13 Nov 2004 08:40:12 +0000, (Robert
Bonomi) wrote:

I've looked in a number of states. Can't find anything that resembles
a blanket prohibition on the seller bidding.

Foreclosure auctions usually include a notice that the seller (the lender)
"reserves the right to bid, in it's own name"

'Partition' auctions -- where the joint owners can't agree on a buy-out,
usually have the owners, individually, bidding against each other, and/or
any other prospective purchasers.

Either of those situations would indicate that there is *not* any such
absolute prohibition.


For someone who seems determined to have an argument, you might want to do
a little better job at research.

1. The fact that in foreclosure auctions there is the reference you found
to a self-bidding exception indicates (or suggests, if you wish) that
self-bidding is not otherwise allowed unless excepted. So, you got that
"absolutely" wrong. Statutory construction 101.


Illiterate, incompetent, and incoherent.

_If_ an 'exception' exists, it proves conclusively that there is *no*
'absolute', or 'blanket' prohibition.

_That_ is covered in 'Introductory Logic', which you apparently missed.

I disputed a claim that is is _never_ allowable to bid on your own item.
That is _not_ to say that is _always_ allowable to bid on your own item.o

!(always forbidden) == sometimes acceptable

Spurious arguments claiming 'always acceptable' to be a fallacious claim,
while accurate, shows a lack of comprehension. Or a deliberate, premeditated
attempt to erect a 'straw man'.


The deal here is that an auction such as ebay's is a holding out for sale
by open bid. If the owner self-bids or employs someone else to bid as a
shill, then the item is not truly being held out for sale by open bid.

Not enough for you? Then continue reading ...


Suggest you re-read, for comprehension, the actual posting I questioned.
A _blanket_ claim that *any* bidding by a seller on his own item was a
criminal act, and could get the seller/bidder sent 'up the river.'

I was *not* questioning that _under_some_conditions_ that it could be a
proscribed act. I was questioning the claim that *any* time a seller bid
on his own item, that it was _automatically_ a crime.

2. I gave you a link to the California site. And, I believe that ebay is
governed by CA law because it is located there, though I may be wrong about
that - and you can check their cite. Anyway, here is what I found at
ca.gov:

"CALIFORNIA CODE, CIVIL CODE, SECTION 1812.601

"(b) 'Auction' means a sale transaction conducted by means of oral
or written exchanges between an auctioneer and the members of his or
her audience, which exchanges consist of a series of invitations for
offers for the purchase of goods made by the auctioneer and offers to
purchase made by members of the audience and culminate in the
acceptance by the auctioneer of the highest or most favorable offer
made by a member of the participating audience."

"audience" does not include owners or shills, even if they are "in the
audience" - difference between vulgar English (look up "vulgar") and
legalese. Rather, they are "owners" and "agents".

Still not enough? Then say, "Please sir, may I have another?" and get
ready to be spanked again.

3. Here ya go:

"CALIFORNIA CODE, CIVIL CODE, SECTION 1812.608

"In addition to other requirements and prohibitions of
this title, it is a violation of this title for any person to do any
of the following:
...
"(h) Cause or allow any person to bid at a sale for the sole
purpose of increasing the bid on any item or items being sold by the
auctioneer, except as authorized by Section 2328 of the Commercial
Code or by this title. A violation of this subdivision includes, but
is not limited to, either of the following:
"(1) Stating any increased bid greater than that offered by the
last highest bidder when, in fact, no person has made such a bid.
"(2) Allowing the owner, consignor, or agent thereof, of any item
or items to bid on the item or items, without disclosing to the
audience that the owner, consignor, or agent thereof has reserved the
right to so bid.
"A violation of this subdivision is an infraction subject to a fine
of one hundred dollars ($100)."

QED

3. If you need more, let me know and I'll send you a fee schedule. -- Igor


Such a vehement argument -- in which you *totally* support _my_ original
assertation: A seller bidding on his own item is *not* automatically in
violation of the law. A seller bidding on his own item, _may_ *under*some*
*circumstances* be in violation of the law.

The specific post that I questioned, stated _without_qualification_ that if
a seller bid on his own item, it was a criminal act.

You have provided conclusive evidence that such is _not_ the case.



P.S. If your usually that snotty when you're having an "agreement" with
somebody, you must be hell to be around, when somebody disagrees with
you.




  #37   Report Post  
Robert Bonomi
 
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In article ,
igor wrote:
On Sat, 13 Nov 2004 07:59:31 +0000, (Robert
Bonomi) wrote:



I am _entirely_ willing to believe that *under*some*circumstances*, the owner
bidding on his own item may constitute a form of fraud.

I *DO*NOT* accept that _any_ bidding by the owner automatically constitutes
an illegal action.

There are too many 'foreclosure' auctions, where the property owner

(the lender)
"reserves the right to bid on the property on it's own behalf",

There are too many auctions resulting from 'partition' lawsuits, where the
(joint) owners are, *individually*, bidding on their property -- against
each other and/or any other prospective buyers.


You are making the point you claim to be refuting: Self-bidding is allowed
only within certain specific exceptions. Above, you made a reference to
"absolute prohibition". There is not even an "absolute prohibition"
against killing someone with a gun -- e.g., there is the self-defense
exception. Also, in some states you can shoot to kill anyone who breaks
into your house while you are at home. Then there is "defense of others".
The exceptions themselves make rather clear that there is a "general
prohibition" -- even if you have not found it. Maybe someone here said
that _any_ owner-bidding is illegal, but I think that is your straw man.


You demonstrate you inability to read the prior messages. I quote:

"A seller bidding on their own auction is, in the U.S. at least, a
crime and you can do time for it. Sellers who do that are thieves and
should be pointed out as such."


*That* is what I questioned.

The fact is that there are laws against owner-bidding, unless excepted
(and, generally, disclosed to the other bidders).


Thank you, again, for confirming the accuracy of my point -- It is _not_
*always* a crime for the seller to bid on his own items.

And, neither of the exceptions you found have anything to do with the
auction the OP mentioned. -- Igor.


The follow-up I took exception to made a statement about _any_ auction.

Note: the poster of that follow-up _has_ agreed that his statement, as
written was overly broad.


  #38   Report Post  
Tim Douglass
 
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On Sat, 13 Nov 2004 19:58:25 GMT, igor wrote:

Again, your straw man. Who said "all" -- except you? And if someone did,
he's wrong. If you wanted to learn something, fine. Argument for
argument's sake, not fine.


*I* said "all", Igor. It was just a blanket statement with the thought
in mind that "all shill bidding is illegal". It didn't come out that
way.

Tim Douglass

http://www.DouglassClan.com
  #39   Report Post  
igor
 
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On Sat, 13 Nov 2004 22:48:51 +0000, (Robert
Bonomi) wrote:

In article ,
igor wrote:

[snip for length]
You are making the point you claim to be refuting: Self-bidding is allowed
only within certain specific exceptions. Above, you made a reference to
"absolute prohibition". There is not even an "absolute prohibition"
against killing someone with a gun -- e.g., there is the self-defense
exception. Also, in some states you can shoot to kill anyone who breaks
into your house while you are at home. Then there is "defense of others".
The exceptions themselves make rather clear that there is a "general
prohibition" -- even if you have not found it. Maybe someone here said
that _any_ owner-bidding is illegal, but I think that is your straw man.


You demonstrate you inability to read the prior messages. I quote:

"A seller bidding on their own auction is, in the U.S. at least, a
crime and you can do time for it. Sellers who do that are thieves and
should be pointed out as such."

*That* is what I questioned.

The fact is that there are laws against owner-bidding, unless excepted
(and, generally, disclosed to the other bidders).


Thank you, again, for confirming the accuracy of my point -- It is _not_
*always* a crime for the seller to bid on his own items.

And, neither of the exceptions you found have anything to do with the
auction the OP mentioned. -- Igor.


The follow-up I took exception to made a statement about _any_ auction.

Note: the poster of that follow-up _has_ agreed that his statement, as
written was overly broad.


You were responding to Tim Douglass who wrote: "A seller bidding on their
own auction is, in the U.S. at least, a crime and you can do time for it.
Sellers who do that are thieves and should be pointed out as such."

You even quoted him in your most recent reply, yet nowhere does he actually
use the word "any", "all", "always", "absolute", or anything comparable.
You set up a straw man, as I said. You call Tim's statement overly broad;
I call it a statement of the general rule. You wanted to know about "the
law", you wrote. You did not ask about "logic". Your reference to
"Introductory Logic" is inapposite. Tell it to the judge and see if she
cares.

Lawyers would _not_ say that Tim's post was wrong or even overly broad.
They would say it is a statement of the general rule. And, as I wrote
above, what is your point re the OP's post? Based on what he wrote (and
assuming the facts were as he stated them), none of the exceptions applied.
There was no foreclosure and no division. As a matter of the facts as
posited, not possible under the law. Who cares about real property
auctions -- the OP mentioned personal property owned by an individual.
It's called "context". How about choice of laws, in rem and in personem
jurisdiction, and the like? For that matter, how about International
Shoe?!!! Fascinating stuff, but not relevant here.

If I say that it is a crime to come up behind you and shoot you in the
head, is that _incorrect_ because I do not say that, well, actually it is
OK if you are about to slit a child's throat? No. Just as saying "the
earth is round" is not "incorrect" because there may well be some flat
surfaces on it. And if I say that one is subject to income taxes on income
earned from selling a piece of furniture, am I wrong if I do not say that,
actually, no taxes are owed if one's adjusted income is below a certain
level? Or, in parallel to your inapplicable "exceptions" on the facts as
given, is my statement about taxes wrong because muni bond income is
generally tax free in the muni's state? No and no.

To skip mentioning the exceptions is not to say that a statement posits an
absolute. I think that is true even in undergrad logic; I know it is true
in the law. Again, it is a statement of the general rule.

Law does not equal logic. It may find some basis in logic, but law is
replete with evidence of illogic -- in the standard abstract sense of
"logic". You have confused some sense of yourself knowing "logic" and
therefore knowing the law and statutory construction. Call back when you
have written a dozen laws. Then you'll almost be within hailing distance.
If you have a really big megaphone.

As for my tone in my response to your posts, I have posted here many times
(a piker compared to many, but often), and I cannot recall ever having used
the same tone elsewhere in the NG. I save it for special people -- or,
more accurately, for those special posts. Such as yours.

My mistake was to believe that you were interested in learning about the
law. In fact, you were looking for an argument. When I realized that, I
decided you needed some hit-in-the-head lessons. Arguments are down the
hall. To the left. -- Igor
  #40   Report Post  
igor
 
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On Sat, 13 Nov 2004 15:27:16 -0800, Tim Douglass
wrote:

On Sat, 13 Nov 2004 19:58:25 GMT, igor wrote:

Again, your straw man. Who said "all" -- except you? And if someone did,
he's wrong. If you wanted to learn something, fine. Argument for
argument's sake, not fine.


*I* said "all", Igor. It was just a blanket statement with the thought
in mind that "all shill bidding is illegal". It didn't come out that
way.


Gee, Tim, and here it is I just posted a long statement in this thread in
your defense!!!. (I hate smileys, but one could well go here.) IMO and
IME, what you said originally - I could not find the word "all" in your
post, but am dyslexic, dog knows why - was fine. You stated the general
rule. Correctly. And since we were talking about a single seller's drill
press, the exceptions cited _could_ not apply.

"Shilling" is not a legal term, IME. However, a dictionary meaning: "n.
One who poses as a satisfied customer or an enthusiastic gambler to dupe
bystanders into participating in a swindle." From that perspective, if one
is acting as a shill, one is presumptively acting illegally -- even if the
law uses different terms of art. If one is an owner (or his agent) and
bidding openly, the exceptions may apply. But if acting as "a shill", one
is _unlikely_ to be able to fit within any exception as there would
necessarily be no notice. So, I would say that all shill bidding is
illegal. Self-bidding is also illegal, at least in CA, subject to specific
exceptions.

So Tim, I'll still defend you. For if the dovetail does not fit, you must
acquit -- or, at least recut it, or use a chisel, or something. Let me
DAGS and get back to you on that. -- Igor
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