"George" george@least wrote in message
...
{SNIP of Economics discourse)
My turning wood arrives at $60 per cord. Some city guy pays half that for
a
single blank, where I get a dozen pieces for the same - more if I use a
coring system. My lathe is an antique, my tools are not the latest alloy,
I'm efficient enough to make the thing within two hours, and my cost of
living and standard of living may be lower as well. Not to mention, the
prospective buyers in this lower wage area are more interested in a bowl
than my name on the bottom. Steak versus sizzle.

Do I charge more because the other guy's costs or desired return is
higher?
Most call that gouging. What if the other guy has a more saleable
signature - s/he's "recognized" as a great turner. If they've got a
monopoly on sizzle, I'm going to have to sell steak, or sell nothing.
Either that, or come September I'm going to be short on tuition, my
shelves
full of unsold stock, which makes it some pretty labor-intensive firewood.

George,
Here you are implying if not saying that you charge based on your costs
and time, and this is what I think Owen was getting at. That your material
cost is lower is fine, but you are covering your cost, same for your cost of
living. While someone did mention an incident about someone being told to
raise their price, I don't think this has been the thrust of this thread.
This topic has sure taken many interesting turns.
Take care
Martin