Ralph Mowery writes:
In article , says...

As a counterpoint, This article actually shows the text of the
law and describes exactly how it disenfranchises voters.

https://www.nytimes.com/2021/04/02/u...annotated.html

There was no fraud and the republicans have admitted outright they must
prevent legitimate voters from being able to vote in order to win an
election.

How is this not anti-american?



If there was no fraud it looks like the democrats would be pushing to
have the votes recounted or what ever it takes to prove the republicans
were just crying foul.

Extraordinary claims require extraordinary evidence. It's up to
those claiming fraud to prove it.

And recounts happened in pretty much every swing state at the
insistance of the GOP, which, in conjunction with the 59 court
case dismissals for lack of evidence, conclusively proved that
the GOP was "just crying foul".