In article ,
The Natural Philosopher wrote:
On 29/08/2019 22:39, Tim+ wrote:
Harry Bloomfield, Esq. wrote:
Tim+ expressed precisely :
I was just curious as to whether others find the bald
”50 to 1• mix a little bit ambiguous.

No, I don't find it ambiguous 50 of one and 1 of the other, that is
what it says.


It could also be interpreted to mean one fiftieth part in the final mix.

Tim

Well no, not really.

First of all if uyou were taught anything at school 50:1 is unambiguous
50/51ths of one and 1/51th of the other.

And its expressed that way because that is how we measure the mix. three
shovels of sand and one shovel of cement etc.

and that has a high degree of accuracy ;-)
-

--
from KT24 in Surrey, England
"I'd rather die of exhaustion than die of boredom" Thomas Carlyle