On 02/12/14 15:11, mike wrote:
On Tue, 2 Dec 2014 14:58:42 +0000, fred wrote:

In article , Jethro_uk
writes
On Tue, 02 Dec 2014 06:36:41 -0800, JimK wrote:

If I took a car belonging to someone else for an MOT test to decide how
bad it is and so whether I'd want to bother, would the MOT failure
overrule the few days left on the old MOT?

Jim K

No.

However, if you/your friend is subsequently stopped, and the vehicle is
found to have a defect that was noted on the failure slip, you could be
in more trouble, than if it wasn't.

Sort of, anything that amounts to, "using a vehicle in an unsafe
condition" will see you in bother so a nick in a viper blade or even a
lamp out will not but a bald tyre or faulty brakes will.

I don't thinl the op was asking that. Clearly if someone drives a
vehicle which is unroadworthy it is illegal - and nothing technically
to do with an mot. He could drive out of an mot pass and immedialtely
fail something if the police stopped him. (Ok he'd have a good case in
court).

I thought whatever mot was done last, applied. That way at least
everyone knows where they stand. Waving mot an mot pass cert against
an mot fail one for the same vehicle is asking to problems.

Not correct.

I had three done. First dealer induced massive fail, 'we want £2000'
second pass, 'nothing wrong' third by VOSA inspector 'well one of the
tyres was arguably too ripped up to pass, so fail on that only but the
existing valid certificate stands'

Essentially fauilures are not recorded centrally - any pass valid for
the day is - valid for the day!


--
Everything you read in newspapers is absolutely true, except for the
rare story of which you happen to have first-hand knowledge. €“ Erwin Knoll