In article lgate.org,
Lee Hanken wrote:
However, two door-to-door companies have said that they will only give a
quote if both home-owners are present. The latter sales representative
even said that it was the law that both should be present when the quote
is given. This sounds quite suspicious. I understand that to make a
contract to do the work would require both my Mum and Dad to be present.
Why, I wonder, should both have to be present before a quote can be
given? Is this really the law?

This is standard practice and nothing do with law, everything to do with
psychology. If your spouse is not there, there is a very strong likelihood
that you will tell the salesman that you are not willing to sign until you
have discussed it with them. He knows that in the cold light of day his
unrepeatable bargain offer ("I don't know what my boss will say when I tell
him what a great deal I'm giving you" - yeah right) will not seem such a
bargain to you, let alone your spouse who hasn't had the sales pitch. So he
wants both of you there, so you've not got any excuse not to sign, also of
course he can play you off against one another ("I can see, Lee, that your
wife really loves this kitchen. I'm sure you think she deserves the best")

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