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Doug Miller
 
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In article , gregg wrote:
Doug Miller wrote:


And if the Court rules that Congress has no power to do that? What then?

Article III, Section 2. Clause 2. Last phrase. This gives the Congress
the
power to preclude the SC from addrssing an issue.


The First Amendment specifically prohibits Congress from enacting laws
that abridge freedom of speech or of the press. They did just that last
year. The Court ruled that they didn't.


You keep repeating that.


You keep failing to understand it.

You state it as FACT and use it as a premise to show that the SC has done
something wrong.


It IS a fact that the McCain-Feingold law prohibits certain types of political
advertising within certain time frames preceding elections.

YOU might believe they allowed a law that violated free speech - others do
too. But many others do not. And I haven't been convinced either way. Nor
am I a constitutional scholar - and I bet you aren't one either.


It's not necessary to be a constitutional scholar to understand the meaning of
"Congress shall make no law...". [Personally, I kinda wish they had stopped
right there, but that's another discussion.] It requires only the ability to
read and comprehend the English language.

So while you want to be convinced of it, I'm sorry but I reject it as some
sort of starting point:


Read the law.

You haven't proven it and I'm not interested in that rathole debate.
Especially since neither one of us knows what we would be talking about.


Speak for yourself.

Believe it if you want - that's certainly your right. but dont' state it as
an absolute fact that can be used in this discussion.


Read the law. It IS a fact, whether you know it or not.

personal opinion about McCain-Feingold snipped


It's not opinion, it's fact that that law prohibits certain types of
advertising during certain time periods.


--
Regards,
Doug Miller (alphageek-at-milmac-dot-com)

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