On Fri, 3 Dec 2004 19:38:09 -0000, "Mike" wrote:


"Rob" wrote in message
...

"BigWallop" wrote in message
news

Whatever happened to "caveat emptor"?

Frank Erskine


You mean "Caveo Emptor"? "Buyer beware"?


No, he means caveat emptor "let the buyer beware".

Surely if he's the buyer then caveo is correct ? Then again Latin was never
my strong point ever since my Latin master dropped dead after our second
lesson and the school never replaced him.



If the writer of the original phrase is the buyer then the "-o"
ending looks correct for 1st person singular - but it is indicative
rather than subjunctive mood I think ("caveat" is subjunctive).... I
think "emptor" is OK though which is nominative case .... or is it
vocative.. actually, possibly both ... which seems to fit both
instances ....maybe... errr.... oh no!!!.... I feel a "Romans go home"
sketch coming on (a quick google and here it is:-
http://members.chello.se/hansdotter/romanes.html)

Coincidentally, my Latin master also popped his clogs mid-course and
was not replaced, but not until we'd had to suffer a lot more Latin
than just two lessons.

Time for bed.

Gary