On Tue, 19 Oct 2004 15:15:08 -0400, someone wrote:

... In my case, the boilerplate was to the effect that the
seller attests that any known problems of any consequence have been
disclosed.

Sounds like a good setup to litigate what constitutes "of
consequence". Is there actually a law that requires a Seller to
execute such a statement? If there was a law that says that a Seller
has to disclose, then no statement would necessarily be required, the
Seller would be obligated to disclose, whether he signed such a
statement or not. OTOH if there was NOT a disclosure law, Buyers
would want such statements to give them protections that were NOT
automatic under law.

-v.