On Fri, 7 May 2021 17:19:04 +0100, newshound
wrote:

On 07/05/2021 12:13, T i m wrote:

However, what we are doing then is comparing the taste of something we
are used to, something we shouldn't have been consuming in the first
place ('cows milk' was meant for 'cows', not humans

But humans have *evolved* to be able to consume it (at least, a lot
can).

More than 60+% of the population can't so if that was an EU referendum
result that would be a win to 'The world population is lactose
intolerant. ;-)

So how do you justify that statement?

Do you really think I would need to justify a statement re humans
evolving a tolerance to something we should never have been consuming
in the first place?

Did we have to become tolerant to our mothers milk, apples, nuts or
berries (we as in the vast majority, not some obscure cases)?

Cheers, T i m