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T i m T i m is offline
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Default Does a tyre change its CIRCUMFERENCE when underinflated?

On Mon, 25 Jun 2018 13:58:54 +0100, Robin wrote:

snip

I did not say there are no asymmetries between the hemispheres.


Ok ...

I do
say that IMLE your generalisation is not shared by the practising
neurosurgeons, neurologists and neuropsychologists I've heard comment
on the matter.


Assuming you fully understand whatever you are determine to be 'my
generalisation' etc?

You may of course be better qualified than them or have
access to better advice.


Nope, but the information in the scientific, peer tested link I
provided seemed to?

But there are many others who agree with the
OECD.


I'm sure there are ... like the flat-worlders still out there. ;-)

I am told functional MRI is particularly persuasive in this
regard[2].

But I don't really expect to persuade you.


You don't need to Robin as 1) it doesn't really matter to you what I
'believe' and 2) it doesn't matter to me what you believe (or think I
believe) either.

The left-brain/right-brain
myth


Ok. Do you think we (not me of course), fully understand how the human
brain / mind / memory etc works? Do you think you do maybe?

has become a metaphor for different ways of thinking which may
never die.


It's true that I sometimes like to use it when thinking out loud to
differentiate different types of people, how they think and therefore
why they might say the things they do.

nd it is of course also a wonderful way to peddle
pseudo-psychology


For you to say such authoritatively you would have to be in a position
to counter all the evidence supporting that brain lateralisation does
exist (and it does).

- or cast aspersions.


If the cap fits?


[1] though I must say I thought calling the corpus callosum a "point" a
bit like saying there's only a few dozen lines for calls across the Atlantic


A good example of a 'left brainer' / literal interpretation on my
very simple yet accurate statement. eg. If you look at the comparative
land masses of the UK and the USA and then the size of ALL the cables
between them, they wouldn't even register on that scale.

[2] : eg

http://journals.plos.org/plosone/art...l.pone.0071275

"we demonstrate that ...do not result in a subject-specific global brain
lateralization difference that favors one network over the other (i.e.
left-brained or right-brained).


Yet different people demonstrate different characteristics that seem
to fall into specific groupings? Have you not noticed a link between
those who do and don't understand the topic of this thread and their
position on Brexit for example? Could it be that someone willing to
completely ignore the feelings of between 1/2 and 2/3rds of the
electorate might consider others differently to someone who wouldn't?


https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3743825/

"Yet our analyses suggest that an individual brain is not “left-brained”
or “right-brained” as a global property, but that asymmetric
lateralization is a property of individual nodes or local subnetworks,


Yup?

and that different aspects of the left-dominant network and
right-dominant network may show relatively greater or lesser
lateralization within an individual. "


Bingo.

Sorry, what that supposed to disprove my basic concept Robin? ;-)

OK, try this. Do you feel that women are generally more empathetic
than men (and if they are, why that might be)?

If you do then you have already accepted that people can be different
and based on specific criteria (re EQ in this context) and probably on
a testable (and even measurable, MRI etc) scale.

So, if you have a stroke in the left side of your brain, why are you
statically more likely to have problems with speech than people who
have a stroke in the right hemisphere?

If both hemispheres (typically) dealt with the exact same things at
the same level why wouldn't it be 50:50?

Cheers, T i m