In article , "Dave Plowman (News)"
writes
In article ,
Handsome Jack wrote:
bert posted
In article , Handsome Jack
writes
So let us define "international law" as "a set of treaties and
agreements where you agree to be bound by some independent arbitrator
in case of dispute". Then we are both agreed that there is indeed such
a thing as international law.

So which treaties have we broken when as in Dave's words we have taken
action in our own commercial interests?

If the action is military aggression (which is what we are talking
about), the UN treaties we signed at the end of WW2.

Do 'treaties' come into it anyway? The reasons given for going to war
against the various middle east countries was always given as in the
interests of their population - ruled by a despot, etc. But oddly, we only
seem to do this with the middle east.

The reason given for going to war with Iraq was that they threatened us.
Regime would have been illegal.
We invaded Egypt in 1956 to protect our vital interest in the Suez canal
So which middle east countries have we invaded to overthrow their
regime?
--
bert