On Mon, 25 Jul 2016 22:32:28 -0600, rbowman wrote:

That's the real question, isn't it. If there are other people living on
the road, my guess would be no.

The road exists for the other people.
I own most of the road, although they own their portions too.
There is no way to travel from the public road to their house without
driving on my property and on their property.

So, the answer is that "I" own a substantial portion of the road in its
entirety, and they own a portion also.

We're all in agreement that the sole purpose of the road is to serve the
people who have the benefit (and who paid for long ago) of an easement.