On Saturday, April 26, 2014 11:05:12 AM UTC-4, jim wrote:
Please explain if that is true , why Congress has to mandate ethanal useage.
Congress doesn't have to mandate ethanol usage. If the EPA removed the
upper limits on Ethanol even more than the mandated amount would be sold.
If they do not have to mandate the use of ethanol , why do they mandate it?
Probably because they do not believe that if they did not mandate the use, it would not get used.
But, that implies Congress people and the EPA have
deceived you, and we all know that is utterly impossible.
If it were really cheaper the oil companies would do it so they would make more money.
They would do what? Blend ethanol to the maximum extent the
law allows? That is what the oil companies are doing.
Actualy they blend ethanol to the minimum extent the law allows.
The mandated amount was just recently lowered because the
mandated amount was higher than the amount permitted by
EPA regulation. When the mandates were enacted it was expected
that gasoline usage would go up and by now ethanol usage
would be about 3 or 4 percent of the supply. But gasoline
usage went down and ethanol usage is at about 10% of the
supply and it can't go any higher until the EPA lifts the
limits.
And the EPA does not raise the limits because higher levels of ethanal harm the engines unless the engines are changed to work with higher ethanol amounts.
If they had not lowered the mandate it would have
revealed how meaningless the mandates are.
Yes that is how it saves money. It costs money and energy
to boost octane by converting low octane petroleum
fractions to higher octane fractions.
Cite?
Look at a gas pump and see the difference in
price 3 or 4 octane points make in the cost.
Then double the price differential (per gallon) to
reflect the extra burden on refineries to boost the
octane on 20 million gallons a day up 3 octane points.
I already gave a cite, and somebody else did too, but
you are too lazy to educate yourself.
I did not see any such cite.
Dan
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