" wrote:

On Thursday, March 6, 2014 11:52:20 AM UTC-5, jim wrote:

There is no redistribution of wealth through the

income tax system. In order for redistribution

to occur the income tax would have to at least

fund the income tax payers own share of the spending.


Please explain exactly why the income tax would have to fund
the taxpayers own share of the spending for redistribution to occur.

If the money is used up paying for the portion of federal
spending that benefits the income taxpayer. It cannot also be
given to someone else. This is pretty simple accounting.



If say the rich paid a 50 % tax and the poor paid no tax,
it seems that redistribution would be occurring regardless
of what percentage of the federal spending was from income tax.

Well all I can say it is a shame that your brain does such
a poor job of processing information. You would fit right in
a feudal society. There is nothing in your
statement that suggests the poor are getting money at
the expense of the rich. That is a conclusion you leap to
based on what you want to believe and not based on any
facts and basic accounting.

I suppose you also think that slaves are are also the beneficiaries
of redistribution. They pay no taxes. They should count themselves
lucky.

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