On Tuesday, January 7, 2014 11:22:34 AM UTC-5, Ed Pawlowski wrote:
On 1/7/2014 8:05 AM, wrote:

On Monday, January 6, 2014 3:32:18 PM UTC-5, Ed Pawlowski wrote:







It would help if you didn't edit out the pertinent part you're responding

to and would at least answer the simple questions posed.

I gave you two examples:



"The answer is both of them. At 0F, it's cold enough to freeze

pipes. And depending on where the pipes are, they can be

affected by the windchill. Again, just two examples:



A - Pipes are in a cabin with no heat. Do you think the cabin

inside temp will be the same overnight as the temp drops without

regard to what the windchill is? If the reported windchill was

large, would you not agree that the pipes are going to be

more likely to freeze?



B - Pipes in a drafty crawlspace. "





The temps that the crawlspace reaches on a cold night is

affected by the windchill. So is the temperature that an

unheated cabin will reach inside. With significant windchill

they could reach temps overnight that they would not reach

without windchill. It's that simple.





No, they are affected by the wind, but not the windchill.

The windchill is dirctly affected by the wind. You can't have one
without the other. How hard is that to understand?

And the fact that you won't answer the very simple questions posed
shows that you've lost the argument. I've answered ALL your questions,
but you won't answer mine, which go to the core of the issue.

Here they are again:

A - Pipes are in a cabin with no heat. Do you think the cabin

inside temp will be the same overnight as the temp drops without

regard to what the windchill is? If the reported windchill was

large, would you not agree that the pipes are going to be

more likely to freeze?



Answer?



B - Pipes in a drafty crawlspace. "


Anser?


Different

things. You may not agree, but the definition of windchill factor was to

tell a human how it is going to feel to the skin when outside.

What it was created for and what it effects are two very different
things. Ask NOAA, Weather Channel, University of IL, etc. They
clearly say that the lower the windchill, the more likely pipes are
to freeze.



They can

put a value on it.

A value on an arbitrary scale. So what? Show us where the creators
of the windchill said it doesn't have an effect on inanimate objects.
NOAA among the others I listed as references say it does.



The wind may affect the rate of cooling in a draft,

but it does not have the same numerical value and it can never go below

the actual temperature.



I never said it could go below the actual temperature. Try responding
in the context of the discussion. Did you even read it?

It was with a temp of 0F and a wind chill of -10F. Last time I checked
those conditions are well below freezing on planet earth. What planet
are you on?




You can make up any definition you want, but that does not change the

real meaning.



I haven't made up anything or defined anything. Stop lying.




Oh, you also ignore my example of a temperature of 35 degrees and a

wndchill of 20 degrees. Will the pipes freeze? NO

Wow! What a revelation! Maybe Stormin can weigh in on whether he
thought his pipes could freeze when it was 35. He specifically
said it was 0F with a windchill of -10F

Idiot.