On Sun, 4 Apr 2010 08:07:50 -0700 (PDT), "maxim.porges"
wrote:

I'm an electronics hobbyist, just getting in to the basics. I bought a
copy of "Make: Electronics" and I'm teaching myself from that.

I understand how Ohm's Law works for calculating real-world voltage/
amperage/resistance, but I am intrigued by the theoretical
implications of it. Given that V = R x I, if there was zero resistance
in a circuit (i.e. R = 0), then that implies that there would be no
voltage (because the voltage would calculate out to 0). I want to make
sure I understand this conceptually.

Using the water-pressure analogy, if there are two tanks connected to
each other with one tank full and the other empty, and a pipe at the
base of the tanks connecting them, then I understand that the voltage
is equivalent to the pressure of the water in the filled tank, and the
amperage the speed with which this pressure is relieved as current
flows from the filled tank to the empty one until equilibrium is
achieved. If the pipe between the tanks offers zero resistance, then
the speed with which the water moves between the tanks to equalize the
pressure should be extremely high (i.e., infinite amperage). In other
words, in a truly zero-resistance system, equilibrium would be
achieved instantly.

---
Well, no.

There is the time required for the equilibrium to occur.
---

Is the fact that equilibrium is achieved instantly the reason why the
voltage would be zero? I.e., the potential between the tanks is
instantly resolved by the lack of resistance, with a theoretical
amperage of infinity?

---
No.

Equilibrium will be reached when the level of water in both tanks is
equal, which will take some time to achieve.

Also, equilibrium won't happen in one pass since the water has mass,
which will cause the water columns in the tanks to oscillate for a while
before everything quiets down.


JF