On Dec 11, 6:07 am, Tim Daneliuk wrote:
J. Clarke wrote:

SNIP

So the boom during WWII was due to ther governmnent forcing the
private sector to produce more?

Clearly, even when government acts *within* its proper domain, it can
have economic effect. It simply has no permission to act to *specifically*
achieve economic outcomes.

Nah, motive does not determine the government's
proper domain.

For instance, the government has athority to lift or
levy tariffs and taxes. If the government chooses to
tax white phosphorous in matches so as to eliminate
jaw necrosis in matchmakers, that just as constitu-
tional as doing so to raise revenue because the
Constitution does not restrict those powers on a
basis of motive.

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FF