Doug Miller wrote:

The Constitution has (almost) nothing to do with the conversation.
The 2nd Amendment does not apply to the states or individual
citizens (see "Incorporation Doctrine" almost anywhere).

Nonsense -- unless you contend that the same phrase, "the right of
the people," which appears in the First, Second, and Fourth
Amendments, means an individual right in the First and Fourth, but
a collective right in the
Second. There is no support, either linguistically or historically,
for that position.

But there is support legally for the position.

Perhaps you misunderstood. The CONTENT of the 2nd Amendment (milita,
people, etc.) is immaterial to my statement.

The original Bill of Rights applied ONLY to the federal government.
Once the 14th Amendment was passed, various bits of the BOR trickled
down to the states via the "incorporation" doctrine. These bits were
applied at various times.

Ah, yes, I did misunderstand. My apologies.

Same back at ya. I see how easily my original post could have be read
another way.