Greg G. wrote:

Just Wondering said:


That language comes from the preamble to the constitution, which, despite what
some people including apparently you believe, does NOT grant the federal
government any power.


And where is the Constitutional provision that empowers the IRS?


Don't change the subject. The subject is the preamble. Here's what the United
States Supreme Court had to say on the subject:

"Although that preamble indicates the general purposes for which the people
ordained and established the Constitution, it has never been regarded as the
source of any substantive power conferred on the government of the United
States, or on any of its departments. Such powers embrace only those expressly
granted in the body of the Constitution, and such as may be implied from those
so granted. Although, therefore, one of the declared objects of the Constitution
was to secure the blessings of liberty to all under the sovereign jurisdiction
and authority of the United States, no power can be exerted to that end by the
United States, unless, apart from the preamble, it be found in some express
delegation of power, or in some power to be properly implied therefrom."

Jacobson v. Commonwealth of Massachusetts, 197 U.S. 11, 25 S.Ct. 358 (U.S. 1905).