On Tue, 30 Dec 2003 08:20:48 GMT, (Richard
Lewis) wrote:

"Ed Huntress" wrote:

I doubt if anyone here doesn't get it except for you, dimwit. Here's what
Interpol says about it:
(http://www.interpol.int/Public/Stati...CS/default.asp)

So the numbers of "crimes" reported by the actual countries that the
"crimes" took place in and in which they were reported and punished as
"crimes" weren't in fact "crimes" because some idiot named ed living
elsewhere proclaims that they aren't?

Evidently you are having some difficulty understanding the situation.

Let's consider a simple, and obvious, example:

Compare the number of cases of bigamy in the US with the number in
Sa'udi Arabia.

The latter country has a far lower rate than the former. Why? because
the definition is different. In the US, a guy who marries a second
woman prior to the death or divorce of the first is a bigamist. In
Sa'udi Arabia, he doesn't become a bigamist until he reaches the fifth
woman.

Mind you, it's a serious crime there, but not exactly a frequent one.

Al Moore