Rod Speed wrote:

Jet Graphics wrote
Rod Speed wrote
Jet Graphics wrote
Rod Speed wrote

The vast majority of wealth in America
in private hands is inherited wealth.

Wrong, the vast bulk of it has been accumulated by the individual,
and is the house they are paying off and their retirement savings.

Actually, both are incorrect.

Nope.

And without any facts in support of the objection, moving on...

Lie. The facts are still there in the quoting.

Incorrect conclusion. No facts in evidence to rebut the statement that both
were wrong, because absolute ownership is abolished by national socialism.
The collective has a superior claim to all property. Ergo, there is no real
wealth in the hands of most Americans.

Under socialism (thanks to FICA/SocSec), there
is no "private property" (owned absolutely).

Wrong.

Again, your opinion lacks facts.

YOU made that stupid pig ignorant claim.

YOU get to provide the facts that support that stupid pig ignorant claim.

THATS how it works.

Incorrect conclusion. The references were attached to prior post, that you
apparently failed to comprehend.

Private property is absolutely owned.
Estate is not.
Socialism abolishes private property.
Since 1935, the U.S.A. has been socialist.
Estate is subject to taxation and regulation.
Private property is not subject to nor object of taxation and regulation.
Check your own state constitution for further proof.

From the Texas Constitution:
* * *ARTICLE 8 *TAXATION AND REVENUE
* * *Sec. 1. *EQUALITY AND UNIFORMITY; TAX IN PROPORTION TO
* * *VALUE; TAXATION OF TANGIBLE AND INTANGIBLE PROPERTY;
* * *OCCUPATION TAXES; INCOME TAX; EXEMPTION OF HOUSEHOLD GOODS.

* * *(a) Taxation shall be equal and uniform.

* * *(b) All real property and tangible personal property in
* * *this State, unless exempt as required or permitted by this
* * *Constitution, whether owned by natural persons or
* * *corporations, other than municipal, shall be taxed in
* * *proportion to its value, which shall be ascertained as may
* * *be provided by law.

* * *The Texas constitution states that all real and personal
* * *property is subject to their taxing power.

* * *PROPERTY TAX - An ad valorem tax, usually levied by a city
* * *or county, on the value of real or personal property that
* * *the taxpayer owns on a specified date. *BL 6, p.1218

* * *That definition agrees with the Texas constitution.

From Georgia Constitution, Art VII, Sec I, Par III (b) 1: ... classes of
property subject to taxation shall consist of tangible property and one or
more classes of intangible personal property including money.

TANGIBLE PROPERTY - all property which is touchable and has real existence
(physical) whether it is real or personal. BL6, p. 1218

Of course, you might need to double back and realize that "real or personal
property" refers to estate, which is NOT private property. If lawyers
weren't so prone to obfuscation, they might have stated, "tangible property
is real or personal property that is touchable."

But "real or personal property" is not private property, owned absolutely.

"REAL ESTATE .... is synonymous with real property"
Black's Law dictionary, sixth ed., From p.1263

"REAL PROPERTY ... A general term for lands, tenements, heriditaments; which
on the death of the owner intestate, passes to his heir." Black's Law
dictionary, sixth ed., p.1218

"ESTATE - The degree, quantity, nature and extent of interest which a person
has in real and personal property. An estate in lands, tenements, and
hereditaments signifies such interest as the tenant has therein." - -
-Black's Law dictionary, sixth ed., p.547

Note: estate = real estate = real and personal property = tangible property

INTEREST - ...More particularly it means a right to have the advantage of
accruing from anything ; any right in the nature of property, but less than
title. - - -Black's Law dictionary, sixth ed., p. 812

TITLE - "The formal right of ownership of property..."
Black's Law dictionary, sixth ed., p.1485

Estate is held with an interest that is not the FORMAL RIGHT OF OWNERSHIP.
It is a privilege!

"PRIVATE PROPERTY - As protected from being taken for public uses, is such
property as belongs absolutely to an individual, and of which he has the
exclusive right of disposition. Property of a specific, fixed and tangible
nature, capable of being in possession and transmitted to another, such as
houses, lands, and chattels." - - - Black's Law dictionary, sixth ed.,
p.1217

"OWNERSHIP - ... Ownership of property is either absolute or qualified. The
ownership of property is absolute when a single person has the absolute
dominion over it... The ownership is qualified when it is shared with one
or more persons, when the time of enjoyment is deferred or limited, or when
the use is restricted. " - - -Black's Law dictionary, sixth ed., p. 1106

In short, the states have no delegation of power to tax land, houses or
chattels absolutely owned (a right). But they DO have a delegation of power
to tax estate held by qualified ownership (a privilege).

If you were misled to believe "estate" = "all land", that is easily
corrected.

"LAND. ... The land is one thing, and the estate in land is another thing,
for an estate in land is a time in land or land for a time."
- - -Black's Law dictionary, sixth ed., p.877

"Land for a time" is TEMPORARY, not absolute ownership.

Recapping:

Private property = land, houses, chattels owned ABSOLUTELY by an individual.

Estate = land, tenements, and heriditaments held with an interest (qualified
ownership) by a person or persons.

Socialists have an interest in their estate, but it is shared with the
Collective. Whoever controls the collective, controls all estate.

Here's the facts of property:

You wouldnt know what a fact was if it bit you on your lard arse.

Vulgarity denigrates the speaker, not the subject of the vulgarity.

Do you have any facts to rebut the legal definitions previously posted?

All you have to do is produce ONE definition from a legal authority that
rebuts the previous post and then you would have made one valid point.

There are many reputable sources: Statutes at Large of the United States of
America, American law review, Corpus Juris Secundum, American law digest,
Black's Law dictionary, Bouvier's Law Dictionary, Ballantine's Law
Dictionary, Law of Nations by Vattel, Annotated State and Federal
publications of their respective codes.

Private property is absolutely owned by an individual.
Pursuant to the 5th amendment, "private property" is protected
from being taken for public use without just compensation.

So that claim you made above is clearly a complete pack of lies.

Incorrect conclusion. Try again.

Estate is synonymous with real and personal property. Estate is held
with qualified ownership (less than absolute) by a person or persons.

Irrelevant waffle.

Incorrect conclusion. Try again.

If one has NOT enrolled into national socialism (FICA/SocSec)
one is not a "person liable" for the SS wage tax.

And if you are enrolled and are not getting a wage, there is
no personal liability owing, so you clearly do have absolute
ownership of your private property that has been fully paid for.

So your original pig ignorant claim is a complete pack of lies.

Incorrect conclusion. Try again.

Every American enrolled into FICA/SocSec is a "person liable".
In fact, every beneficiary is obligated to pay his own benefit. Since being
a donor and beneficiary is a legal impossibility, the Supreme court
overturned the 1st SocSec Act. FDR scurried out and got an international
treaty (*totalization agreement) that allowed the 2nd act to be "legal".

There is no law requiring Americans to enroll in national socialism before
working in the USA. There is no law punishing employers who hire unnumbered
Americans. [See Title 18 U.S. Code]


reams of mindless pig ignorant raving flushed where it belongs

Incorrect conclusion. Since you consider definitions from legal authorities
to be "mindless... raving", you must also consider "the LAW" to be mindless
raving. That is not a good sign that you have a grasp of reality or
mentally competent. Perhaps you should see a health practitioner for an
examination.

For further enlightenment, research the legal definitions of the following
terms:
national v. citizen
sovereign v. subject
inhabitant v. resident
domicile v. residence
natural liberty v. civil liberty
personal liberty v. civil liberty
unalienable rights v. political liberty
private property v. estate (real and personal property)
absolute ownership v. qualified ownership

You might be surprised that there is a huge difference between an American
national, domiciled upon private property, exercising natural and personal
liberty, and the U.S. citizen, residing upon estate, exercising civil and
political liberty.

In case you are unaware that there ARE Americans who are NOT CITIZENS, read
the following:

"The better to secure and perpetuate mutual friendship and intercourse among
the people of the different states in this union, the free inhabitants of
each of these states, paupers, vagabonds and fugitives from Justice
excepted, shall be entitled to all privileges and immunities of free
citizens in the several states;..."
[Article IV of the Articles of Confederation (1777)]

"INHABITANT -One who resides actually and permanently in a given place, and
has his domicile there."
- - - Black's Law Dictionary, Sixth Edition, p.782

"DOMICILE - A person's legal home. That place where a man has his true,
fixed, and permanent home and principal establishment, and to which
whenever he is absent he has the intention of returning." - - - Black's Law
Dictionary, Sixth Edition, p.484

"RESIDENCE - Place where one actually lives ... Residence implies something
more than physical presence and something less than domicile. The terms
'resident' and 'residence' have no precise legal meaning... [One can have
many residences but only one domicile]
- - - Black's Law Dictionary, Sixth Edition, p.1308, 1309

Note: A residence is something LESS than domicile. A legal residence is NOT
a domicile. One can have many residences but only ONE domicile. If one has
NO domicile, one has no "legal home".

A U.S. citizen can only "reside" in a state (See 14th amendment).

"All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the
jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and of the State
wherein they reside." [14th Amendment, Section 1.]

Why can't U.S. citizens inhabit?

FEDERAL CORPORATIONS - The United States government is a foreign corporation
with respect to a state. - - - Volume 19, Corpus Juris Secundum XVIII.
Foreign Corporations, Sections 883,884

How did "EVERY AMERICAN" become a citizen in a "foreign corporation"?
The United States, in Congress assembled, only has exclusive jurisdiction
over its federal property, not over the States united.

In fact, you can contact the State department and ask them if they issue
passports to AMERICAN NATIONALS who are not U.S. citizens.

I did.
And they do issue passports to American nationals who are not U.S. citizens.

Quick summary:

A U.S. citizen, residing in a state, at a residence, with an interest in
real estate, is a person subject to and object of the government. And
failure to perform his duties, as a resident, will result in confiscation
of real and personal property.

An American free inhabitant, domiciled in private property, is a sovereign,
not a "person" identified in statutes. His private property is protected
from being taken by government for public use.

Perhaps there is an interested party who does not wish Americans to learn
that they voluntarily surrendered their property rights in exchange for
access to "entitlements". And that by doing so, they lost the birthright of
freedom, sovereignty, and liberty that their forefathers fought and died
for.