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jim rozen
 
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Default OT- Writer Mark Steyn ...

In article , Larry Jaques says...

I don't see the 40 times in the figures above, gunner. ...


0.08/0.002 = 40x difference, Jim.


I think it boils down to the difference between
comparing two different numbers. On one hand
is the probability that a motorist will die in
a wreck with another motor vehicle, vs in a wreck
with a train.

On the other hand is the *total* probability of dying
in various kinds of wrecks, train vs another car.

Because train/car wrecks are so infrequent, the second
number is very low. But if you look at the fatality rate
for train crashes vs other car crashes, of course the train one
will be much much higher. I thought gunner was
implying that the first type of comparison was large - which
it isn't.

I also don't understand the difference in the stats
quoted, between "fatal accidents" and "accident deaths."

Jim

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